Screening Assessment Evaluation and Diagnosis in SLP Questions Free

1. What is the primary goal of screening for communication disorders?

• A) To diagnose a specific disorder
• B) To identify individuals who need further evaluation
• C) To provide treatment
• D) To confirm a diagnosis

2. Which of the following is typically used in screening for feeding and swallowing disorders?

• A) Detailed case history
• B) Videofluoroscopic swallow study
• C) Simple observational checklist
• D) Cognitive testing

3. Screening for communication disorders in children often involves:

• A) Comprehensive diagnostic testing
• B) Parent and teacher questionnaires
• C) Surgical interventions
• D) MRI scans

4. Which age group is most commonly screened for feeding and swallowing disorders?

• A) Newborns
• B) Teenagers
• C) Elderly
• D) Middle-aged adults

5. Which of the following is NOT typically part of a communication screening?

• A) Vocabulary checklist
• B) Swallowing test
• C) Hearing screening
• D) Articulation test

6. What is the first step in developing a case history?

• A) Conducting a physical examination
• B) Reviewing the client’s medical records
• C) Interviewing the client or caregivers
• D) Performing standardized tests

7. When selecting assessment instruments, which factor is NOT typically considered?

• A) The client’s age
• B) The clinician’s personal preference
• C) The nature of the disorder
• D) Cultural and linguistic appropriateness

8. Which of the following is crucial when assessing factors that influence communication and swallowing disorders?

• A) Only evaluating the physical aspects
• B) Considering environmental influences
• C) Ignoring the client’s social background
• D) Focusing solely on genetic factors

9. Assessment of anatomy and physiology in speech disorders primarily involves examining:

• A) Language skills
• B) Oral structures and their functions
• C) Cognitive abilities
• D) Social skills

10. Which method is commonly used for gathering detailed information in a case history?

• A) Structured interviews
• B) Multiple choice tests
• C) Standardized scoring
• D) Observational checklists

11. The assessment of speech sound production primarily evaluates:

• A) Pitch and loudness
• B) Articulation and phonology
• C) Fluency patterns
• D) Cognitive function

12. Fluency disorders are typically assessed using:

• A) Repetition of sounds, syllables, and words
• B) Swallowing tests
• C) Resonance measurement
• D) Cognitive tests

13. Voice assessment might include evaluating:

• A) Speech intelligibility
• B) Vocal quality, pitch, and loudness
• C) Syntax and morphology
• D) Feeding skills

14. Which is NOT typically assessed in receptive and expressive language evaluations?

• A) Vocabulary
• B) Syntax
• C) Swallowing
• D) Pragmatics

15. Pragmatic language assessment focuses on:

• A) Sound production
• B) Use of language in social contexts
• C) Motor speech skills
• D) Fluency of speech

16. Cognitive aspects of communication are most related to:

• A) Memory, attention, and problem-solving
• B) Phonetic articulation
• C) Voice quality
• D) Swallowing reflex

17. Augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) is primarily used for:

• A) Individuals with speech sound disorders
• B) Enhancing voice resonance
• C) People who cannot speak or have severe communication disorders
• D) Improving fluency

18. Hearing assessments usually involve:

• A) Pure-tone audiometry
• B) Oral motor exercises
• C) Pragmatic language tests
• D) Cognitive testing

19. Feeding and swallowing assessments may include:

• A) MRI scans
• B) Clinical bedside swallowing evaluation
• C) Vocabulary tests
• D) Speech fluency measures

20. Which of the following is NOT a component of motor speech assessment?

• A) Respiratory control
• B) Speech intelligibility
• C) Vocal fold function
• D) Cognitive processing

21. Which is a genetic etiology for communication disorders?

• A) Stroke
• B) Cleft palate
• C) Parkinson’s disease
• D) Down syndrome

22. Developmental disorders are often identified:

• A) At birth
• B) During adolescence
• C) In adulthood
• D) Only in elderly populations

23. A common cause of communication disorders due to disease processes is:

• A) Multiple sclerosis
• B) Genetic mutation
• C) Childhood trauma
• D) Auditory exposure to loud noises

24. Auditory problems in communication disorders are usually related to:

• A) Cognitive deficits
• B) Hearing loss or auditory processing disorders
• C) Articulation issues
• D) Voice disorders

25. Neurological etiologies for speech and language disorders include:

• A) Asthma
• B) Traumatic brain injury
• C) Nasal congestion
• D) Vitamin deficiencies

26. Structural etiologies of speech disorders might involve:

• A) Hearing loss
• B) Vocal abuse
• C) Cleft lip and palate
• D) Learning disabilities

27. Psychogenic etiologies are primarily linked to:

• A) Genetic inheritance
• B) Emotional or psychological factors
• C) Physical abnormalities
• D) Environmental toxins

28. An example of a functional etiology is:

• A) Stroke
• B) Chronic laryngitis due to vocal abuse
• C) Autism
• D) Cochlear implant malfunction

29. Which disorder is typically NOT associated with a genetic etiology?

• A) Down syndrome
• B) Cerebral palsy
• C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
• D) Spasmodic dysphonia

30. Diseases such as Parkinson’s or ALS are related to:

• A) Structural defects
• B) Neurological etiologies
• C) Cognitive impairments
• D) Genetic mutations

31. Which assessment tool is commonly used for receptive language?

• A) Picture naming tasks
• B) Sentence repetition tasks
• C) Following directions tasks
• D) Oral reading tasks

32. Which of the following is assessed during a voice evaluation?

• A) Tongue movement
• B) Vocal fold function
• C) Lip closure
• D) Hearing acuity

33. When assessing fluency, what is one key feature to evaluate?

• A) Muscle tone
• B) Frequency of disfluencies
• C) Vocabulary size
• D) Breath support

34. Which aspect is considered when evaluating social communication skills?

• A) Grammatical correctness
• B) Understanding of social cues and context
• C) Articulation clarity
• D) Respiratory function

35. Which tool is used to assess auditory processing disorders?

• A) Articulation tests
• B) Audiological evaluations
• C) Visual scanning tests
• D) Fluency tests

36. Which factor is commonly considered in the assessment of feeding and swallowing?

• A) Oral motor function
• B) Vocal quality
• C) Hearing sensitivity
• D) Social skills

37. Which disorder might result from a structural etiology?

• A) Phonological disorder
• B) Voice disorder
• C) Swallowing disorder
• D) Pragmatic language disorder

38. In which area of assessment would you evaluate pitch and loudness?

• A) Fluency
• B) Articulation
• C) Voice and resonance
• D) Cognitive communication

39. What is the primary concern in assessing cognitive aspects of communication?

• A) Speech sound production
• B) Problem-solving and reasoning
• C) Vocal quality
• D) Swallowing reflex

40. Which is a common method for assessing motor speech disorders?

• A) Articulatory speed tests
• B) Language comprehension tasks
• C) Voice loudness measurements
• D) Cognitive processing speed

41. A common assessment for expressive language might involve:

• A) Sentence construction
• B) Voice quality analysis
• C) Fluency measures
• D) Swallowing safety

42. Which aspect of feeding is assessed with a barium swallow study?

• A) Articulation precision
• B) Swallowing safety and efficiency
• C) Fluency of speech
• D) Hearing acuity

43. When assessing augmentative and alternative communication, what is a primary goal?

• A) Enhance vocal quality
• B) Improve sentence structure
• C) Provide communication alternatives for those with severe speech disorders
• D) Increase speech rate

44. What is a key component of evaluating receptive language?

• A) Expressive vocabulary size
• B) Understanding spoken words and sentences
• C) Fluency of speech
• D) Speech sound production

45. Which disorder is most likely to have a psychogenic etiology?

• A) Stuttering
• B) Functional voice disorders
• C) Cleft palate
• D) Sensorineural hearing loss

46. Assessment of speech intelligibility typically involves:

• A) Sentence repetition
• B) Sound identification
• C) Understanding pragmatics
• D) Measuring the clarity of spoken words

47. Which factor is important in selecting an assessment tool for voice disorders?

• A) Client’s reading level
• B) Presence of articulation errors
• C) Specific voice characteristics such as pitch, loudness, and quality
• D) Hearing sensitivity

48. A common symptom of fluency disorders is:

• A) Breathiness
• B) Repetitions and prolongations
• C) Hypernasality
• D) Word finding difficulties

49. Which assessment is often included in the evaluation of cognitive-communication disorders?

• A) Picture naming
• B) Story recall
• C) Swallowing reflex test
• D) Pure tone audiometry

50. Which disorder might require the use of augmentative and alternative communication?

• A) Mild articulation disorder
• B) Severe expressive language disorder
• C) Minor fluency issues
• D) Mild voice disorder

Answer Key

1. B
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. B
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. B
50. B